Erdős problem 288
Is it true that there are only finitely many pairs of intervals , such that
Sources
FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/
288.lean
Retained formal statement
Is it true for any that only finitely many intervals satisfy this condition?
sorry ↔ ∃ k > 2, {I | ∀ (j : Fin k), (I j).1 ≤ (I j).2 ∧ ∃ n, ∑ j, ∑ nⱼ ∈ (Set.Icc (I j).1 (I j).2).toFinset, (↑↑nⱼ)⁻¹ = ↑↑n}.FiniteOpenStatement only, no proof