Erdős problem 288 · problems.science

Is it true that there are only finitely many pairs of intervals $I_1$ , $I_2$ such that $\sum_{n_1 \in I_1} \frac{1}{n_1} + \sum_{n_2 \in I_2} \frac{1}{n_2} \in \mathbb{N}?$

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4 retained statements2415f78e850a

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FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/

288.lean

Retained formal statement3 of 4

This is still open even if $|I_2| = 1$ .

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/288.leanErdos288.erdos_288.variants.i2_card_eq_11 lineExact file

1sorry ↔ {(I, n₂) | I.1 ≤ I.2 ∧ ∃ n, ∑ n₁ ∈ (Set.Icc I.1 I.2).toFinset, (↑↑n₁)⁻¹ + (↑↑n₂)⁻¹ = ↑↑n}.Finite

OpenStatement only, no proof

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