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Erdős problem 1137

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Let dn=pn+1−pnd_n=p_{n+1}-p_n, where pnp_n denotes the nnth prime. Is it true that max⁡n<xdndn−1(max⁡n<xdn)2→0\frac{\max_{n < x}d_{n}d_{n-1}}{(\max_{n < x}d_n)^2}\to 0 as x→∞x\to \infty?

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Problem row
sha256:3041ee92b4871bef39607b49fd581dd1f7ed40fa45002bce3a688ab6e0364283
Metadata
sha256:c195b1a86124e00a76a9e7fdad41c364f556539b57c17daa67d3fe32c5ac1cac
Observation
sha256:9c8326e865b6017b103af7611c852a06776d81964979b8ab5a1b800cd550dff6
Content
sha256:4237eee87b38a4a81e3a8869d3ec304251f3e1350268370176acf1b01fd51199
Repository
sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection
sha256:a4a96441668a9f8b33afbcb3f696a2639f5fae145f36ddc063d7f67d5fb87ce8
Source commit
36c6d0fef71a3fec84d9dcd5eeca4e22e378f7cb
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