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Erdős problem 313

Are there infinitely many pairs (m, P) where m ≥ 2 is an integer and P is a set of distinct primes such that the following equation holds: ∑p∈P1p=1−1m\sum_{p \in P} \frac{1}{p} = 1 - \frac{1}{m}?

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Retained declaration

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/313.lean

Formal Conjectures

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/313.leanErdos313.erdos_3131 lineExact file
sorry ↔ Erdos313.erdos313Solutions.Infinite
OpenStatement only, no proof

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