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Erdős problem 313

Are there infinitely many pairs (m, P) where m ≥ 2 is an integer and P is a set of distinct primes such that the following equation holds: ∑p∈P1p=1−1m\sum_{p \in P} \frac{1}{p} = 1 - \frac{1}{m}?

Sources

The source's own material, retained exactly.

5 retained statements36c6d0fef71a

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FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/

313.lean

Retained formal statement4 of 5
FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/313.leanErdos313.erdos_313.variants.solution_42_2_3_71 lineExact file
(42, {2, 3, 7}) ∈ Erdos313.erdos313Solutions
TestStatement only, no proof