Erdős problem 316
Is it true that if is a finite set with then there is a partition such that for ?
Sources
FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/
316.lean
Retained formal statement
Is it true that if is a finite set with then there is a partition such that for ?
This is not true in general, as shown by Sándor [Sa97].
The minimal counterexample is , found by Tom Stobart.
This was formalized in Lean by Mehta.
False ↔ ∀ (A : Finset ℕ), 0 ∉ A → 1 ∉ A → ∑ n ∈ A, 1 / ↑n < 2 → ∃ A₁ A₂, Disjoint A₁ A₂ ∧ A = A₁ ∪ A₂ ∧ ∑ n ∈ A₁, 1 / ↑n < 1 ∧ ∑ n ∈ A₂, 1 / ↑n < 1