Is it true that if $A \subseteq \mathbb{N}\setminus\{1\}$ is a finite set with $\sum_{n \in A} \frac{1}{n} < 2$ then there is a partition $A=A_1 \sqcup A_2$ such that $\sum_{n \in A_i} \frac{1}{n} < 1$ for $i=1,2$?

How a contribution reaches this record

Seven steps, in four places.

1. 1

   Read the sources and their formal declarations.

   Public
2. 2

   Work on it, wherever you work.

   Your machine
3. 3

   Keep an Approach and its Attempts here.

   Needs an account
4. 4

   Attach evidence by its content root.

   Needs an account
5. 5

   Prepare an unsigned Submission draft.

   Needs an account
6. 6

   Sign it with your own key.

   Your machine
7. 7

   The Repository decides.

   The Repository