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Erdős problem 396

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Is it true that for every kk there exists nn such that ∏0≤i≤k(n−i)∣(2nn)?\prod_{0\leq i\leq k}(n-i) \mid \binom{2n}{n}?

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Technical detailsExact roots, source, and retained record identifiers

Exact provenance

Problem row
sha256:0e0ed982aadb3f5569adc20af42a3bd435cc5f14e81114859b4cd0c8804ffb21
Metadata
sha256:5304cb32b83675d9db8b49728167b6b23911e9b159527755d43fc45d98f2f5e2
Observation
sha256:9c8326e865b6017b103af7611c852a06776d81964979b8ab5a1b800cd550dff6
Content
sha256:9d937d143bef9bbbc2b107463e5f6ea4182f99bc6edbebf1db3fbdfcb48e9fea
Repository
sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection
sha256:a4a96441668a9f8b33afbcb3f696a2639f5fae145f36ddc063d7f67d5fb87ce8
Source commit
36c6d0fef71a3fec84d9dcd5eeca4e22e378f7cb
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