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Erdős problem 649

Let P(m)P(m) denote the greatest prime factor of mm. Is it true that, for any two primes p,qp,q, there exists some integer nn such that P(n)=pP(n)=p and P(n+1)=qP(n+1)=q?
Retained from Formal Conjectures · not edited here
Formal statements
1 open · 2 solved · 3 textbook
Erdős Problems says
disproved (Lean)
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Accepted in Vela Mathematics Program

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