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Erdős problem 649

Let P(m)P(m) denote the greatest prime factor of mm. Is it true that, for any two primes p,qp,q, there exists some integer nn such that P(n)=pP(n)=p and P(n+1)=qP(n+1)=q?

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FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/

649.lean

Retained formal statement5 of 6

Even with such amendments, this problem is false in a strong sense: Alan Tong has provided the following elegant elementary proof that, for any given prime pp, there are infinitely many primes qq such that this statement is false: let mm be the product of all primes p\leq p, and choose a prime qq congruent to 1-1 modulo 4m4m. If pp is the greatest prime divisor of nn then, using quadratic reciprocity, every prime divisor of nn is a quadratic residue modulo qq, and hence nn is a quadratic residue modulo qq. On the other hand, since q3(mod4)q\equiv 3\pmod{4} we know that 1-1 is not a quadratic residue modulo qq, and hence n≢1(modq)n\not\equiv -1\pmod{q}, so it is impossible for qn+1q\mid n+1.

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/649.leanErdos649.erdos_649.variants.tong1 lineExact file
∀ (p : ℕ), Nat.Prime p → {q | Nat.Prime q ∧ ¬∃ n, n.maxPrimeFac = p ∧ (n + 1).maxPrimeFac = q}.Infinite
SolvedStatement only, no proof

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