Skip to content

Erdős problem 698

Is there some h(n)h(n)\to \infty such that for all 2i<jn/22\leq i<j\leq n/2 gcd((ni),(nj))h(n)?\textrm{gcd}\left( \binom{n}{i},\binom{n}{j}\right) \geq h(n)?
Retained from Formal Conjectures · not edited here
Formal statements
4 solved
Erdős Problems says
proved (Lean)
Decision here
No current contribution
Checks
0 checks · 4 formal

Current Result

Accepted in Vela Mathematics Program

Current Result

No result has been accepted here yet.

Type
Evidence
0 artifacts
Decision
None
Reviewed
No date retained

Search problems.science

Find a Problem, Result, source, or page