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Erdős problem 785

Let A,BNA,B\subseteq \mathbb{N} be infinite sets such that A+BA+B contains all large integers. Let A(x)=A[1,x]A(x)=\lvert A\cap [1,x]\rvert and similarly for B(x)B(x). Is it true that if A(x)B(x)xA(x)B(x)\sim x then A(x)B(x)xA(x)B(x)-x\to \infty as xx\to \infty?
Retained from Formal Conjectures · not edited here
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1 open · 9 solved
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proved (Lean)
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Accepted in Vela Mathematics Program

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