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Erdős problem 785

Let A,B⊆NA,B\subseteq \mathbb{N} be infinite sets such that A+BA+B contains all large integers. Let A(x)=∣A∩[1,x]∣A(x)=\lvert A\cap [1,x]\rvert and similarly for B(x)B(x). Is it true that if A(x)B(x)∼xA(x)B(x)\sim x then A(x)B(x)−x→∞A(x)B(x)-x\to \infty as x→∞x\to \infty?

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The source's own material, retained exactly.

10 retained statements36c6d0fef71a

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FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/

785.lean

Retained formal statement2 of 10

Chen conjectures that this should be true with 3/23/2.

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/785.leanErdos785.erdos_785.variants.chen_conjecture8 linesExact file
True ↔  ∀ (A B : Set ℕ),    A.Infinite →      B.Infinite →        IsAdditiveComplement A B →          Filter.limsup (fun x => ↑(↑(Erdos785.counting A x) * ↑(Erdos785.counting B x)) / ↑↑x) Filter.atTop <              ↑(3 / 2) →            Filter.Tendsto (fun x => ↑(Erdos785.counting A x) * ↑(Erdos785.counting B x) - ↑x) Filter.atTop Filter.atTop
OpenStatement only, no proof