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Erdős problem 785

Let A,BNA,B\subseteq \mathbb{N} be infinite sets such that A+BA+B contains all large integers. Let A(x)=A[1,x]A(x)=\lvert A\cap [1,x]\rvert and similarly for B(x)B(x). Is it true that if A(x)B(x)xA(x)B(x)\sim x then A(x)B(x)xA(x)B(x)-x\to \infty as xx\to \infty?

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10 retained statements2415f78e850a

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FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/

785.lean

Retained formal statement5 of 10

This is sharp, as Chen and Fang [ChFa11] also proved that there exist such AA and BB with lim supxA(x)B(x)x=32\limsup_{x\to \infty}\frac{A(x)B(x)}{x}=\frac{3}{2} for which A(x)B(x)x=1A(x)B(x)-x=1 for infinitely many xx.

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/785.leanErdos785.erdos_785.variants.chen_fang_sharp6 linesExact file
A B,  A.Infinite    B.Infinite      IsAdditiveComplement A B        Filter.limsup (fun x => ↑(↑(Erdos785.counting A x) * ↑(Erdos785.counting B x)) / ↑↑x) Filter.atTop = ↑(3 / 2) ∧          ∃ᶠ (x : ℕ) in Filter.atTop, ↑(Erdos785.counting A x) * ↑(Erdos785.counting B x) - ↑x = 1
SolvedStatement only, no proof

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