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Erdős problem 943

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Let AA be the set of powerful numbers. Is is true that 1A∗1A(n)=no(1)1_A\ast 1_A(n)=n^{o(1)} for every nn?

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  4. DecisionNo Repository has decided
  5. StandingNothing recorded here
  6. Next gapNot recorded

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Technical detailsExact roots, source, and retained record identifiers

Exact provenance

Problem row
sha256:a6ca76905a93e2404a98a38d872df6db5dafb07c41a22b50d00184fcde56db14
Metadata
sha256:a35fd5f2a73722542530e3ff35d4a6fc519c60c585e9057832c0a2573ba08628
Observation
sha256:9c8326e865b6017b103af7611c852a06776d81964979b8ab5a1b800cd550dff6
Content
sha256:ecb217588d4ce4174342d06ba9c52b00e4da6f027583d05523eca3be7837da4c
Repository
sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection
sha256:a4a96441668a9f8b33afbcb3f696a2639f5fae145f36ddc063d7f67d5fb87ce8
Source commit
36c6d0fef71a3fec84d9dcd5eeca4e22e378f7cb
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