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Erdős problem 15

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Is it true that ∑n=1∞(−1)nnpn\sum_{n=1}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{n}{p_n} converges, where pnp_n is the sequence of primes?

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Problem row
sha256:f5542df8027d0787d8acc1540f4325df432819b9bf6a222a207957b5784c5984
Metadata
sha256:8848e808df7761ebabe3c66ba08d16185a6d961f186d821ed3340f1d54baa479
Observation
sha256:9c8326e865b6017b103af7611c852a06776d81964979b8ab5a1b800cd550dff6
Content
sha256:60968bf663d1aa46d60c10b6307689a8d8e704604c0c37517dde3dc6de3b6c20
Repository
sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection
sha256:a4a96441668a9f8b33afbcb3f696a2639f5fae145f36ddc063d7f67d5fb87ce8
Source commit
36c6d0fef71a3fec84d9dcd5eeca4e22e378f7cb
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