Erdős problem 15 · problems.science

Is it true that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{n}{p_n}$ converges, where $p_n$ is the sequence of primes?

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Problem row: sha256:f5542df8027d0787d8acc1540f4325df432819b9bf6a222a207957b5784c5984
Metadata: sha256:8848e808df7761ebabe3c66ba08d16185a6d961f186d821ed3340f1d54baa479
Observation: sha256:8c823d621b7e1256c8e47c60a5f1c54c016a5507e6f27b2bab537f6f5f232067
Content: sha256:60968bf663d1aa46d60c10b6307689a8d8e704604c0c37517dde3dc6de3b6c20

Repository: sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection: sha256:c9d14c459c518937e758918b5897dc3b22f1a55f07739afe99502f5b046c907a
Source commit: 2415f78e850aeee50afdca525c6f2e0ea606f207