Erdős problem 15Is it true that ∑n=1∞(−1)nnpn\sum_{n=1}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{n}{p_n} converges, where pnp_n is the sequence of primes?WorkspaceContinue locallyOpen sourceSign in to contributeOpen this exact Problem, source revision, and authority Repository in Workbench. This handoff does not clone, switch, upload, or execute anything.FilesErdős problem 152 retained source recordsCanvaspublic previewSource#15→ResultNone→Checks0