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Erdős problem 299

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Is there an infinite sequence a1<a2<…a_1 < a_2 < \dots such that ai+1−ai=O(1)a_{i+1} - a_i = O(1) and no finite sum of 1ai\frac{1}{a_i} is equal to 1?

Erdős Problems records this as disproved (Lean).

No Repository has ruled on it here.

How far the record reaches4 of 6 stages
  1. Sourceerdos-problems
  2. StatementRetained
  3. Formal2 retained
  4. Resolutiondisproved (Lean)
  5. WorkNone recorded
  6. DecisionNone here
  7. The questionNot reached
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Where the source files it575 share a topic
Number Theory576Unit Fractions48
Erdős problem 321accepted
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