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Erdős problem 299

Is there an infinite sequence a1<a2<a_1 < a_2 < \dots such that ai+1ai=O(1)a_{i+1} - a_i = O(1) and no finite sum of 1ai\frac{1}{a_i} is equal to 1?
Retained from Formal Conjectures · not edited here
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2 solved
Erdős Problems says
disproved (Lean)
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Accepted in Vela Mathematics Program

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