Erdős problem 299Is there an infinite sequence a1<a2<…a_1 < a_2 < \dots such that ai+1−ai=O(1)a_{i+1} - a_i = O(1) and no finite sum of 1ai\frac{1}{a_i} is equal to 1?WorkspaceContinue locallyOpen sourceSign in to contributeOpen this exact Problem, source revision, and authority Repository in Workbench. This handoff does not clone, switch, upload, or execute anything.FilesErdős problem 2995 retained source recordsCanvaspublic previewSource#299→ResultNone→Checks0