Erdős problem 414 · problems.science

Let $h_1(n) = h(n)$ and $h_k(n) = h(h_{k-1}(n))$ . Is it true, for any $m,n$ , there exist $i$ and $j$ such that $h_i(m) = h_j(n)$ ?

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Problem row: sha256:bcd3cb6f48dfb1550969569cb9060f249d1bd28662a445d43d679dfcdaa7bd57
Metadata: sha256:b47f027a55b1fa7676bb3b51ac33b93d0155fc94c2ca0168ffea5ba4ac20a6cf
Observation: sha256:8c823d621b7e1256c8e47c60a5f1c54c016a5507e6f27b2bab537f6f5f232067
Content: sha256:40d81cff48c24baafc4d48f6cba1d61401d17530ea5be9d883ee08ce9599171d

Repository: sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection: sha256:c9d14c459c518937e758918b5897dc3b22f1a55f07739afe99502f5b046c907a
Source commit: 2415f78e850aeee50afdca525c6f2e0ea606f207