Erdős problem 414 · problems.science

Let $h_1(n) = h(n)$ and $h_k(n) = h(h_{k-1}(n))$ . Is it true, for any $m,n$ , there exist $i$ and $j$ such that $h_i(m) = h_j(n)$ ?

No current result

No reviewed Result is current in Vela Mathematics Program. Retained source material is shown below.

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/414.lean

Formal Conjectures

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/414.leanErdos414.erdos_4141 lineExact file

1True ↔ ∀ m > 0, ∀ n > 0, ∃ i j, Erdos414.h^[i] m = Erdos414.h^[j] n

OpenStatement only, no proof