Skip to content

Erdős problem 68

∑n=2∞1n!−1=∑n=2∞∑k=1∞1(n!)k\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n!-1} = \sum_{n=2}^\infty \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(n!)^k}
Retained from Formal Conjectures · not edited here
Formal statements
1 open · 1 textbook
Erdős Problems says
open
Decision here
No current contribution
Checks
0 checks · 2 formal

Current Result

Accepted in Vela Mathematics Program

Current Result

No result has been accepted here yet.

Type
—
Evidence
0 artifacts
Decision
None
Reviewed
No date retained

Search problems.science

Find a Problem, Result, source, or page