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Erdős problem 68

∑n=2∞1n!−1=∑n=2∞∑k=1∞1(n!)k\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n!-1} = \sum_{n=2}^\infty \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(n!)^k}

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sha256:8de5326746aa9abeab59e544af903980abff98441f1ad9d766530380ca6d710b
Metadata
sha256:eb7d9286f6a0a419e9bd4b19a0f8912c61b6ca2696e2d5edbf33ae3dd8675029
Observation
sha256:8c823d621b7e1256c8e47c60a5f1c54c016a5507e6f27b2bab537f6f5f232067
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sha256:b6bbd7a50750a3506672dd6b417db8de69e8cf550d7b83bb8284061b9386c37e
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sha256:c9d14c459c518937e758918b5897dc3b22f1a55f07739afe99502f5b046c907a
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2415f78e850aeee50afdca525c6f2e0ea606f207
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