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Erdős problem 239

Let f:N→{−1,1}f:\mathbb{N}\to \{-1,1\} be a multiplicative function. Is it true that lim⁡N→∞1N∑n≤Nf(n) \lim_{N\to \infty}\frac{1}{N}\sum_{n\leq N}f(n) always exists?
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Accepted in Vela Mathematics Program

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