Erdős problem 239Let f:N→{−1,1}f:\mathbb{N}\to \{-1,1\} be a multiplicative function. Is it true that limN→∞1N∑n≤Nf(n) \lim_{N\to \infty}\frac{1}{N}\sum_{n\leq N}f(n) always exists?WorkspaceContinue locallyOpen sourceSign in to contributeOpen this exact Problem, source revision, and authority Repository in Workbench. This handoff does not clone, switch, upload, or execute anything.FilesErdős problem 2392 retained source recordsCanvaspublic previewSource#239→ResultNone→Checks0