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Erdős problem 239

Let f:N→{−1,1}f:\mathbb{N}\to \{-1,1\} be a multiplicative function. Is it true that lim⁡N→∞1N∑n≤Nf(n) \lim_{N\to \infty}\frac{1}{N}\sum_{n\leq N}f(n) always exists?

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  5. StandingA Result stands here
  6. Next gapNot recorded

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Exact provenance

Problem row
sha256:3a4744bf4b73ea51cba6e787b42e621374d356aac5a79a42eb7a3edf58d9d705
Metadata
sha256:ac17cf4ee88e59f188123c58105a89c70d575b7954c56d9d16026228e9ed7811
Observation
sha256:9c8326e865b6017b103af7611c852a06776d81964979b8ab5a1b800cd550dff6
Content
sha256:6980c550cc8f42842b0e5fc236b1cadf81cd1264e6846b88b4be8e68e272fed3
Repository
sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection
sha256:a4a96441668a9f8b33afbcb3f696a2639f5fae145f36ddc063d7f67d5fb87ce8
Source commit
36c6d0fef71a3fec84d9dcd5eeca4e22e378f7cb