Erdős problem 239 · problems.science

Let $f:\mathbb{N}\to \{-1,1\}$ be a multiplicative function. Is it true that $\lim_{N\to \infty}\frac{1}{N}\sum_{n\leq N}f(n)$ always exists?

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Problem row: sha256:3a4744bf4b73ea51cba6e787b42e621374d356aac5a79a42eb7a3edf58d9d705
Metadata: sha256:ac17cf4ee88e59f188123c58105a89c70d575b7954c56d9d16026228e9ed7811
Observation: sha256:8c823d621b7e1256c8e47c60a5f1c54c016a5507e6f27b2bab537f6f5f232067
Content: sha256:6980c550cc8f42842b0e5fc236b1cadf81cd1264e6846b88b4be8e68e272fed3

Repository: sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection: sha256:c9d14c459c518937e758918b5897dc3b22f1a55f07739afe99502f5b046c907a
Source commit: 2415f78e850aeee50afdca525c6f2e0ea606f207