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Erdős problem 600

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Let r≥2r \geq 2. Is it true that e(n,r+1)e(n,r)→1\frac{e(n,r+1)}{e(n,r)} \to 1 as n→∞n \to \infty?

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Problem row
sha256:8567a239215a741bf1979e0af3c8d4b3004eb63d4235edbbd86ae07444857763
Metadata
sha256:37a37f0fef98116ff0c019e6f8a8c10ab845652d861a1e1eb49f4dc91fadc924
Observation
sha256:9c8326e865b6017b103af7611c852a06776d81964979b8ab5a1b800cd550dff6
Content
sha256:8e6aeac3bb2b74e7b704ebbc6071087923455116f3599e5db3c123f5db943f97
Repository
sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection
sha256:a4a96441668a9f8b33afbcb3f696a2639f5fae145f36ddc063d7f67d5fb87ce8
Source commit
36c6d0fef71a3fec84d9dcd5eeca4e22e378f7cb
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