Erdős problem 600 · problems.science

Let $r \geq 2$ . Is it true that $\frac{e(n,r+1)}{e(n,r)} \to 1$ as $n \to \infty$ ?

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Problem row: sha256:8567a239215a741bf1979e0af3c8d4b3004eb63d4235edbbd86ae07444857763
Metadata: sha256:37a37f0fef98116ff0c019e6f8a8c10ab845652d861a1e1eb49f4dc91fadc924
Observation: sha256:8c823d621b7e1256c8e47c60a5f1c54c016a5507e6f27b2bab537f6f5f232067
Content: sha256:8e6aeac3bb2b74e7b704ebbc6071087923455116f3599e5db3c123f5db943f97

Repository: sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection: sha256:c9d14c459c518937e758918b5897dc3b22f1a55f07739afe99502f5b046c907a
Source commit: 2415f78e850aeee50afdca525c6f2e0ea606f207