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Erdős problem 600

Let r≥2r \geq 2. Is it true that e(n,r+1)e(n,r)→1\frac{e(n,r+1)}{e(n,r)} \to 1 as n→∞n \to \infty?

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FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/600.lean

Formal Conjectures

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/600.leanErdos600.erdos_600.parts.i4 linesExact file
True ↔  ∀ (r : ℕ),    2 ≤ r →      Filter.Tendsto (fun n => ↑(Erdos600.eFunction n (r + 1)) - ↑(Erdos600.eFunction n r)) Filter.atTop Filter.atTop
OpenStatement only, no proof

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