Erdős problem 600

Let $r \geq 2$ . Is it true that $\frac{e(n,r+1)}{e(n,r)} \to 1$ as $n \to \infty$ ?

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Retained declaration

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/600.lean

Formal Conjectures

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/600.leanErdos600.erdos_600.parts.i4 linesExact file

1True ↔2  ∀ (r : ℕ),3    2 ≤ r →4      Filter.Tendsto (fun n => ↑(Erdos600.eFunction n (r + 1)) - ↑(Erdos600.eFunction n r)) Filter.atTop Filter.atTop

OpenStatement only, no proof

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