Erdős problem 600Let r≥2r \geq 2. Is it true that e(n,r+1)e(n,r)→1\frac{e(n,r+1)}{e(n,r)} \to 1 as n→∞n \to \infty?WorkspaceContinue locallyOpen sourceSign in to contributeOpen this exact Problem, source revision, and authority Repository in Workbench. This handoff does not clone, switch, upload, or execute anything.FilesErdős problem 6004 retained source recordsCanvaspublic previewSource#600→ResultNone→Checks0