Erdős problem 600 · problems.science

Let $r \geq 2$ . Is it true that $\frac{e(n,r+1)}{e(n,r)} \to 1$ as $n \to \infty$ ?

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3 retained statements2415f78e850a

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/

600.lean

Retained formal statement3 of 3

Ruzsa and Szemerédi [RuSz78] proved that $e(n,r)=o(n^2)$ for any fixed $r$ .

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/600.leanErdos600.erdos_600.variants.ruzsa_szemeredi_upper_bound1 lineExact file

1∀ (r : ℕ), (fun n => ↑(Erdos600.eFunction n r)) =o[Filter.atTop] fun n => ↑n ^ 2

SolvedStatement only, no proof