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Erdős problem 66

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Is there and A⊂NA \subset \mathbb{N} is such that lim⁡n→∞1A∗1A(n)log⁡n\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{1_A\ast 1_A(n)}{\log n} exists and is ≠0\ne 0?

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Problem row
sha256:f7063fcafa625f7b6be999af882529f7b72287a67490ba37f16f84798015ccdc
Metadata
sha256:787fa6ce4aa403508ba969672f2b5840743ea36395494c8f287e557d78e39a25
Observation
sha256:9c8326e865b6017b103af7611c852a06776d81964979b8ab5a1b800cd550dff6
Content
sha256:b38bdf23094bebaa922c2fe7b3c90ec309964d18853e973d00c2570406d1c473
Repository
sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection
sha256:a4a96441668a9f8b33afbcb3f696a2639f5fae145f36ddc063d7f67d5fb87ce8
Source commit
36c6d0fef71a3fec84d9dcd5eeca4e22e378f7cb
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