Erdős problem 66Is there and A⊂NA \subset \mathbb{N} is such that limn→∞1A∗1A(n)logn\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{1_A\ast 1_A(n)}{\log n} exists and is ≠0\ne 0?WorkspaceContinue locallyOpen sourceSign in to contributeOpen this exact Problem, source revision, and authority Repository in Workbench. This handoff does not clone, switch, upload, or execute anything.FilesErdős problem 662 retained source recordsCanvaspublic previewSource#66→ResultNone→Checks0