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Erdős problem 66

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Is there and A⊂NA \subset \mathbb{N} is such that lim⁡n→∞1A∗1A(n)log⁡n\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{1_A\ast 1_A(n)}{\log n} exists and is ≠0\ne 0?

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Retained declaration

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/66.lean

Formal Conjectures

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/66.leanErdos66.erdos_661 lineExact file
True ↔ ∃ A c, c ≠ 0 ∧ Filter.Tendsto (fun n => ↑(AdditiveCombinatorics.sumRep A n) / Real.log ↑n) Filter.atTop (nhds c)
OpenStatement only, no proof

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