Erdős problem 66 · problems.science

Is there and $A \subset \mathbb{N}$ is such that $\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{1_A\ast 1_A(n)}{\log n}$ exists and is $\ne 0$ ?

No current result

No reviewed Result is current in Vela Mathematics Program. Retained source material is shown below.

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/66.lean

Formal Conjectures

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/66.leanErdos66.erdos_661 lineExact file

1True ↔ ∃ A c, c ≠ 0 ∧ Filter.Tendsto (fun n => ↑(AdditiveCombinatorics.sumRep A n) / Real.log ↑n) Filter.atTop (nhds c)

OpenStatement only, no proof