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Erdős problem 4

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Is it true that, for any C>0C > 0, there infinitely many nn such that: pn+1−pn>Clog⁡log⁡nlog⁡log⁡log⁡log⁡n(log⁡log⁡log⁡n)2log⁡n p_{n + 1} - p_n > C \frac{\log\log n\log\log\log\log n}{(\log\log\log n) ^ 2}\log n

Erdős Problems records this as proved.

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How far the record reaches4 of 6 stages
  1. Sourceerdos-problems
  2. StatementRetained
  3. Formal2 retained
  4. Resolutionproved
  5. WorkNone recorded
  6. DecisionNone here
  7. The questionNot reached
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Where the source files it579 share a topic
Number Theory576Primes61
Erdős problem 321accepted
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