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Erdős problem 4

Is it true that, for any C>0C > 0, there infinitely many nn such that: pn+1pn>Cloglognloglogloglogn(logloglogn)2logn p_{n + 1} - p_n > C \frac{\log\log n\log\log\log\log n}{(\log\log\log n) ^ 2}\log n
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Accepted in Vela Mathematics Program

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