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Erdős problem 4

Is it true that, for any C>0C > 0, there infinitely many nn such that: pn+1pn>Cloglognloglogloglogn(logloglogn)2logn p_{n + 1} - p_n > C \frac{\log\log n\log\log\log\log n}{(\log\log\log n) ^ 2}\log n

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Problem row
sha256:3bd1240d13ddaec03c2d46a47900d7a16741ab71eea72d8aca739eccbea6f232
Metadata
sha256:45fb029566d848055c1739340c454f0930a5b2e7cd5d2694a96c30636d650081
Observation
sha256:8c823d621b7e1256c8e47c60a5f1c54c016a5507e6f27b2bab537f6f5f232067
Content
sha256:de194f22ffa448e0eea870cc4ad3654b6c9cd86a02ee5829e0773317897bdddd
Repository
sha256:a956b84c437202e5a02cc9e036a621bd14a302b34a75758115730bdbb77c52a4
Projection
sha256:c9d14c459c518937e758918b5897dc3b22f1a55f07739afe99502f5b046c907a
Source commit
2415f78e850aeee50afdca525c6f2e0ea606f207

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