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Erdős problem 4

Is it true that, for any C>0C > 0, there infinitely many nn such that: pn+1pn>Cloglognloglogloglogn(logloglogn)2logn p_{n + 1} - p_n > C \frac{\log\log n\log\log\log\log n}{(\log\log\log n) ^ 2}\log n

No current result

No reviewed Result is current in Vela Mathematics Program. Retained source material is shown below.

Retained declaration

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/4.lean

Formal Conjectures

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/4.leanErdos4.erdos_41 lineExact file
True ↔ ∀ C > 0, Erdos4.Erdos4For C
SolvedStatement only, no proof

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