Erdős problem 4 · problems.science

Is it true that, for any $C > 0$ , there infinitely many $n$ such that: $p_{n + 1} - p_n > C \frac{\log\log n\log\log\log\log n}{(\log\log\log n) ^ 2}\log n$

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FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/

4.lean

Retained formal statement1 of 2

Is it true that, for any $C > 0$ , there infinitely many $n$ such that: $p_{n + 1} - p_n > C \frac{\log\log n\log\log\log\log n}{(\log\log\log n) ^ 2}\log n$

FormalConjectures/ErdosProblems/4.leanErdos4.erdos_41 lineExact file

1True ↔ ∀ C > 0, Erdos4.Erdos4For C

SolvedStatement only, no proof

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