Erdős problem 4Is it true that, for any C>0C > 0, there infinitely many nn such that: pn+1−pn>Cloglognloglogloglogn(logloglogn)2logn p_{n + 1} - p_n > C \frac{\log\log n\log\log\log\log n}{(\log\log\log n) ^ 2}\log n WorkspaceContinue locallyOpen sourceSign in to contributeOpen this exact Problem, source revision, and authority Repository in Workbench. This handoff does not clone, switch, upload, or execute anything.FilesErdős problem 43 retained source recordsCanvaspublic previewSource#4→ResultNone→Checks0